Content-Transfer-Encoding: |
7bit |
Sender: |
|
Subject: |
|
From: |
|
Date: |
Fri, 6 Oct 2006 19:40:05 EDT |
Content-Type: |
text/plain; charset="US-ASCII" |
MIME-Version: |
1.0 |
Reply-To: |
|
Parts/Attachments: |
|
|
In a message dated 06/10/2006 16:08:54 GMT Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:
The moving of hives when bees are flying to lose the old workers has
little to do with varroa control but might add some control in the
broodless period but would not help beekeepers in the area with their
varroa control as those bees might would find their way into those hives.
The text books all say that there is a broodless period and many experienced
beekeepers write as if there is one but in my experience there isn't unless
associated with a change of queen. My untested feeling is that some bees may
have a broodless period and others not.
The text books with the familiar graphs of brood show that (if she has
stopped) the queen starts laying again at about the turn of the days ie normally
the coldest part of the year. This suggests that they don't stop brooding
because it is too cold or because there is no income. Possibly day length is a
factor that is relevant and, logically, this should be more apparent at higher
latitudes, but from correspondence on this and other lists, bees at latitudes
lower than mine but experiencing harsher winters through an continental
climate are expected to have a broodless period whereas mine are not.
Is there a race factor? My bees are local Amm based mongrels in an area (UK)
where imports of bees are not the usual practice, at least among amateurs;
whereas I understand in North America the bees are largely based genetically
upon Italian bees originating from comparatively low atitudes.
What do you all think?
Chris
-- Visit www.honeybeeworld.com/bee-l for rules, FAQ and other info ---
|
|
|