>I think my post commented on an understanding I have that when V.D. becomes
>resistant to fluvalinate it is only a very short step to resistance to
>amitraz. (If I didn't say that, that is what I meant to say.)
>
>What say you, Zachary?
Lloyd,
This is quite possible, but perhaps not because the two chemicals are in the
same class (they are not), but because of generalized increase of
detoxification enzymes available (see my post today re three scenarios).
One of them is that amitraz might have been used for a quite awhile in US.
Zachary Huang
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