Hello All

Frankly I am at a loss to understand what must really be done when mites
resistant to Bayvarol/Apistan are discovered.

If mites are resistant to Bayvarol are they resistant to Apistan?

If the answer to the above question is YES then must we not use a control
which is neither of the above?

And if that be the case, then surely the control we must now use must be
more effective than the now failed control?

Does this not then point to Coumaphos?

And if it does not, then why did we not use the other control (not
Coumaphos) before the resistance to Bayvarol/Apistan emerged?

I shall be glad of input.

Sincerely

Tom Barrett
Dublin