I am one of the many who have followed this thread with interest.  I
constantly however am concerned for one very good reason that the title
of the thread has a nice but very artificial almost 'stage debate' ring
to it.  If one explores deeper, as 'catchy' as this comparison might be,
I really feel quite strongly that such a comparison is a futile attempt
to use "communication" as an extended metaphor - and then one that is
not applicable.

Language simpliciter is not what music is.  Put otherwise, different
musical styles/cultures are simple not comparable to diffferent languages.

The difference between languages prevents communication and understanding
of the other - forming an often impenetrable barrier - infinitely more
than, say, any barrier that may exist between the person who enjoys Boulez
(as composer) and someone whose listening revolves solely around late
baroque.  Yes, of course music is a wonderful form of communication at many
levels.  But comparing different types of ways that music 'communicates'
is *not* and *cannot* be assimilated to describing music as a language.

I am quite surprised as to why I feel so strongly about this?

Ivan Himmelhoch
Melbourne Australia
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