I am one of the many who have followed this thread with interest. I constantly however am concerned for one very good reason that the title of the thread has a nice but very artificial almost 'stage debate' ring to it. If one explores deeper, as 'catchy' as this comparison might be, I really feel quite strongly that such a comparison is a futile attempt to use "communication" as an extended metaphor - and then one that is not applicable. Language simpliciter is not what music is. Put otherwise, different musical styles/cultures are simple not comparable to diffferent languages. The difference between languages prevents communication and understanding of the other - forming an often impenetrable barrier - infinitely more than, say, any barrier that may exist between the person who enjoys Boulez (as composer) and someone whose listening revolves solely around late baroque. Yes, of course music is a wonderful form of communication at many levels. But comparing different types of ways that music 'communicates' is *not* and *cannot* be assimilated to describing music as a language. I am quite surprised as to why I feel so strongly about this? Ivan Himmelhoch Melbourne Australia [log in to unmask]