I am a relatively new list member who has been lurking until now, but I can
hold my typing fingers no longer.  (I'm a singer, flautist, instrumental
teacher, choral conductor, classroom music teacher and MA student)

A question:

Given that 1)much of the music-with-repeats which has been (heatedly)
debated is well over 150 years old 2) we have 20th (21st?) century ears and
lives and 3) we have experience of a great deal of music composed since the
music in question was composed....

Can we claim that we ever hear, even if we mightplay, the music being
discussed as the composer intended at the time it was composed? I suggest
that we cannot, and therefore while the question of repeats is of interest
and value, and needs to be taken seriously, it is not worth going to war
over.  Can a performance of 18th century music ever be right if the
audience is a 20th/21st century one?

I apologise if this has already been debated.  I have had trouble digesting
some of the more "passionate" posts.

Helen Duggan
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