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Date: | Sun, 27 Jun 1999 09:43:42 -0700 |
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In regard to Annette's post, I didn't recall her asking about RH
incompabitibility, meaning mom has negative RH, but specifically regarding
mother and father having opposite RH?
Is there really a distinction, and in that instance is mom necessarily
treated as though she had a negative RH?
Temple McLean
-----Original Message-----
From: [log in to unmask] <[log in to unmask]>
Date: Sunday, June 27, 1999 5:59 AM
Subject: RH inompatibility
>Dear Friends:
> This is in response to Annette's post about the woman with Rh
>incompatility. I have some questions. For one, how do they know the shot
>(Rhogam) at 28 weeks "didn't work"? Secondly, is this the woman's first
>baby? My understanding is that first babies generally do alright with this
>situation; that it is the second and third and later babies (who are Rh-)
>that will have the problems with erythroblastosis fetalis. I am wondering
if
>the medical team is acting out of fear and ignorance, rather than sound
>evidence. What do the rest of you think? Warmly, Nikki Lee
>
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