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Fri, 23 Oct 1998 16:58:53 EDT |
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I have heard this "5% of women can't breastfeed" idea before, but are we
talking about a woman having *insufficient* milk to supply all of her baby's
needs OR are we talking about women who apparently do not produce *any* milk
at all (primary lactation failure?)? I might even buy that 5% of women
can't/don't produce all of the milk that their baby needs to grow and thrive
optimally (which also includes all of the babies in the breastfeeding dyad who
are unable to *get* the milk, even if it is there), but 5% have NO milk at
all??? Is this possible?
It would also be nice when this 5% figure is used that there was also
mention of breastfeeding as having value *in and of itself* irrespective of
how much milk is produced. A Wise Lactnetter said not too long ago something
to the effect that "even if every single ingredient in breastmilk was
duplicated in formula, I would still breastfeed". Wise counsel.
Lisa Jones in Wellington, south Florida, USA
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