Subject: | |
From: | |
Reply To: | |
Date: | Fri, 15 Sep 1995 16:32:17 -0900 |
Content-Type: | text/plain |
Parts/Attachments: |
|
|
Hi everyone. Diane Herforth wrote Kim about an OB who claimed that he
could not give a mom an antibiotic and allow her to continue bfing
because then he "would be indirectly prescribing for the infant and
cannot legally do that".
Lawyers: is this really true? In Israel, we have a word for what this
sounds like to me, and it translates into a word rhyming with frock, but
I am faaaaaaar from the legal field.
If this IS true, then when a pediatrician tells mom to wean, he is
"treating" the mother, and how does he get away with that legally?
My 19 yr old son, who must have gotten some Vulcan genes somewhere, would
say I'm not being logical, but still I wonder about this.
Lois? Rachael? Anybody? TIA - Judy K. in Israel
|
|
|