Can anyone point me in the right direction? I am looking for some studies on baby being able to get more milk from the breast than a breast pump can remove, but I am having some trouble. I have heard this a lot and I say it myself, but it doesn't make much sense to me.
If it is true, wouldn't this mean that mothers who exclusively breastfeed would yield more milk than a mother who exclusively pumps (if the amounts were equal).
Could this (if it is true) only occur in the mother that only breastfeeds and pumps, wouldn't an exclusively pumping mother be more in tune with her pump than her baby?
Thanks in advance!
Julia IBCLC, RLC
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