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Wed, 18 Apr 2007 23:29:48 -0700 |
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Before my dd was conceived, I charted religiously for six months because I
was trying for a girl (according to the Shettles method). The month she was
conceived, I supposedly didn't ovulate, according to my fertility signs. I
gave up taking my temperature on day 25 when there had been no change in
temp. I wasn't ill, under unusual stress, or any other of the "usual"
reasons that might throw off a woman's cycle. When I also missed a period
at the end of that month, I was seriously freaked out, thinking, "My body
won't ovulate and now I can't even have a period!" But obviously I did
ovulate w/o a temp or mucous change. Two other ladies out of the small
group of five of us who lunch every Friday also somehow conceived under
similar circumstances.
Just my $.02.
Debbie Gillespie, IBCLC, a die-hard believer in condoms
On 4/18/07, Lynn <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
> I've got a mom with PCOS who is adamant about using hormonal birth
> control postpartum, though it may have sabotaged her milk supply with
> the last child (though it didn't keep her from conceiving *very*
> early). She tells me that she can't use NFP because she has no
> cervical mucus and no temperature shift after ovulation. I could
> imagine that she sees little change in cervical fluid, but is it really
> possible not to have a thermal shift after ovulation?
>
> Lynn in MO
>
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