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Date: | Thu, 23 Feb 2006 15:51:15 EST |
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In a message dated 2/23/2006 9:16:51 A.M. Eastern Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:
Last spring IWF was saying that to inform women that there might be a risk
to using formula takes away a woman's right to choose formula. Now in the
Massachusetts case, opponents are saying that the failure to give women a
free sample of formula takes away women's right to choose formula. Why am I
having such difficulty seeing the logic of this?>>>>
I suspect it may be something to do with that pesky informed consent issue,
and the issue of availability -vs- endorsement.
your analogy is very enlightening, .....here's a couple of additional
analogies:
...to inform people that there might be a risk to cigarettes/fatty junk
foods takes away a person's right to choose cigarettes/fatty junk foods....
....the failure to give people a free sample of cigarettes/fatty junk foods
takes away a person's right to choose cigarettes/fatty junk foods....
I hear that smoking can increase focus, ...if a doc were to suggest or
mention that to an ADD pt should the doc also provide info on the risk of smoking?
Is failure to inform parents of the possible/probable risk of formula
feeding a failure of informed consent? ...and should the health care provider who
writes such an order on a hospital chart :"may give formula" be held
responsible for that failure?
Is the practice of routinely giving/providing/making available/allowing to
be given formula samples to new parents an endorsement of formula feeding and
that product? .... and should the health care provider who allows that
practice be held responsible for that endorsement?
Should that cute little girl scout just at my door be required to provide me
a list of fatty junk food risks along with my promptly opened boxes of
Do-Si-Dos and Thin Mints? ...no, because I did not seek her out and pay her for
health care and/or health advice.
Debbie Tobin
RN BSN IBCLC LCCE
Fairfax County, Virginia suburbs outside the Washington DC beltway
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