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Date: | Thu, 8 Jun 2006 03:40:24 -0700 |
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on Wed, 7 Jun 2006 13:20:18 -0400 "Jennifer Tow, IBCLC" <[log in to unmask]>
Subject: Oversupply theory wrote:
"The third issue is hormone funtion. A mom whose body is suffering from
inflammation will have hormone imbalances.......
Sometimes, though the hormones need to be supported in the meantime. I use
vitex to reduce the mother's supply--really that is just the result
of normalizing pituitary function, which is what vitex does. (Remember,
vitex can only increase supply). "
I'm so confused (maybe because it's 3am). What does it mean to use vitex to
*reduce* the mother's supply by normalizing pituitary function by using
vitex which *increases* supply? am I misreading or misunderstanding that?
as someone with oversupply and OAMER, but what I consider great gut health
(vegan, and bowel habits like a...well like a breastfed baby! :-D), and a
son who had no birth trauma but certainly benefitted from CST (since trying
to come out at 32 weeks and just hanging out reeeeealllly low squishing his
head for another 7 weeks apparently had *some* effect on him!), I think your
ideas make sense and I just want to make sure I understand.
Vicki Hayes RN IBCLC in WA-only for 2 more weeks :-(
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