It depends on time since birth. Certainly in the cases described the menses
would have preceeded ovulation (and in fact there could be several
anovulatory cycles and then after ovulation had returned cycles with
insufficient luteal phases) but as lactational amenorrhea proceeds it
becomes more likely that the first menses will be proceeded by ovulation
(and may also have a sufficient luteal phase) making it more likely that
pregnancy could occur without the woman having experienced a period one
study found that women who were had not had a period for at least 8 months
were subject to an instantaneous conception hazard twice that of women who
had had menses return earlier.
Karlen Gribble
Australia

If my memory serves me right,
> I think 'usually' the first menses is anovulatory and can be considered a
> 'warning' to expect ovulation to return now.

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