In reading an article about special infant formulas written by Dr. Sears, I
stumbled upon this paragraph:

http://www.askdrsears.com/html/0/T000100.asp#T031007

"Lactose-intolerance is over-diagnosed in babies (as it is in adults). It's
easy to blame formula, and therefore lactose, for baby's fussiness. Think
for a moment. If so many babies are lactose-intolerant, why would lactose be
the sugar in human milk? True, human milk also contains the enzyme lactase
that helps babies absorb the lactose, whereas formula does not, but milk
lactase doesn't do the whole job."

In his article, he states that lactase is present in human milk. Nowhere can
I find this bit of info substantiated. Lawrence's text has a nice little
chart listing the various enzymes present in human milk, but lactase is not
one of them. My understanding is that it's produced by the intestinal folds,
period, and is not present in milk. Can anyone substantiate or refute this?

Thanks in advance,

Kerry Luskey
Minneapolis, MN

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