John Detwiler wrote inquiring about "thoughts on how to make CM "cool","
etc.

And Chris Bonds replied, in part, that:

>CM lovers of today (as I suggested in a previous post) MAY not be hearing the
>music in quite the same way as those who heard it when it was written.  There
>is such a thing as Zeitgeist and ours is different from theirs.  So in some
>way the music then was the exponent of the time, which is certainly not the
>case now.

Why this last bit? Doesn't dissonance express something that's peculiar to
our century? Better yet, don't Penderecki and Schnittke and Adams and the
others 'give voice to' the tenor of their/our times?

Am I missing something, or are you saying that the music of our culture
alone does not connect in some symbiotic way with it? Why "certainly"?

Bert Bailey