> If one woman gets pregnant and
> nurses and the other woman in the couple wishes to also lactate and
> breastfeed, then this should be treated as adoption breastfeeding.

At the risk of being lynched, I wanted to point something out here:
in a male-female couple where the woman gets pregnant, we often
encourage the dad to find other ways of nurturing than feeding [a
bottle].  We don't generally bring up the idea of a dad even TRYING to
lactate.  When a couple adopts, we tout adoptive breastfeeding as
being better than *not* breastfeeding at all, right?

Why is it different in this case?  I realize that the same is true:
adoptive breastfeeding is a wonderful thing, and is probably good for
the couple who adopts.  If it were a lesbian couple, I could fully see
the reasons for both moms to want to nurse the baby...but if one of
the woman is the biological mother, doesn't it make more sense for the
baby to only get its own mom's milk?  I know the other mom would like
to nurture the baby, but like the WHO says, the first choice would be
milk from the baby's own mother.  If that mom could pump and provide
milk to be used in a lact-aid to begin with, great, it would at least
be that baby's "own" milk (like the 2nd choice as per the WHO:  mom's
own milk given in another manner), but if the other "adoptive" mom
nursing the baby started producing milk, wouldn't that mean the baby
was getting milk that wasn't *quite* as close to the baby's needs as
the baby's own biological mom's milk?  Or are the 2 milks so close
(both being human milk) that it's not worth dithering about?

On the same vein...are there any studies whatsoever about women who
produce milk not having ever had any biological children of their own?
    What is the milk like?  Does it vary in composition/quality from
taht of moms who have given birth at least once?  I'm just curious,
not having ever heard anything about this...

Just a thought anyhow...

Fio.
Mama to Sandrine, 3.5 yo and Nyssa 10 mos old, tandem nursing.

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