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Subject:
From:
Patrica Young <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Lactation Information and Discussion <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Tue, 22 Dec 1998 07:29:33 -0500
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I think we are all getting a little confused re: babies in orig q about
CMV.  To clarify:
1. Born prematurely at 30 weeks post conception
2. Received no or minimal colostrum
3. mom apparently had an active CMV infection near time of delivery, had
serum evidence of past CMV infection
4. mom now wants to begin BF, babies are 10 weeks post delivery, 40 weeks
post conception.
5. Infants had no evidence of congenitally acquired CMV infection.  (Most
of the nasty effects discussed so far deal with congenitally acquired CMV,
effects varying R/T time of infection during gestation.)
6. Maternal antibodies to CMV are acquired transplacentally and these
babies got a shortened (30 weeks) dose
7. Heat treating milk inactivates CMV.  Freezing milk lowers but does not
eliminate CMV.  (Does anyone know what happens to the antibodies during
heat/freezing?)
8. This mom had seroconverted sometime prior to pregnancy as evidenced from
her serum titer (?). Had an active infection post delivery - milk  viral
titer.

The question:
Can she or can't she BF? Will it put babies at risk?

My Q. won't the passively transferred maternally antibody via mom's milk
cancel out the CMV present in her milk at this point?
Is the risk (possible CMV infection) worth the benefits (breastfeeding)?

The Red Book does say "Infections acquired at birth or shortly thereafter
from maternal cervical secretions or human milk usually is NOT associated
with clinical illness." p.187.

I just wanted to clarify this situation because we seem to be going in 14
different directions and not answering the original question.  Sincerely,
Pat in SNJ

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