Date:    Fri, 7 Nov 2008 22:45:48 EST
From:    [log in to unmask]
Subject: Eye Prophylaxis

 
 
I have a different question:
If a mother has already been tested for  STDs and has come up negative, why
the $*&$6#%& are we treating her  baby?
Am I missing something  here?


*** You are only missing that here in the U.S., there is a one size fits all
approach to healthcare, especially in the realm of pregnancy, birth, and
postpartum.  I think they call it "CYA."

When I asked the same question prior to my hospital birth (6 years ago), I
was told that the STD tests are administered at the beginning of pregnancy,
and "we have no way of knowing what you're out doing during your pregnancy."


I could go on about the inherent mistrust of women when it comes to
healthcare, but that's probably a discussion for another time and place.

--Diana in NY (2 homebirths with no eye antibiotics...and somehow, no blind
children...)

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