Okay, dear lactnetters, this may seem unrelated, but as we know, it comes up
with new parents all the time re circumcision, yes or no.  Question is, can
anyone help with qualifying or confirming a statement that I read about 5
years ago re Hebrew ritual circumcision.  It stated that originally, in
ancient times, the ritual involved only making a cut in the foreskin, not
completely removing it.  This, just like other rituals throughout time, has
evolved into something totally different than intended.  Now, that, in a
nutshell was what I read, claimed by a theological historian.  Problem is,
it was 5 years ago, I was postpartum, it was in a magazine that is long gone
(I don't *think* it was M*th****g!), and I have no idea who the author was.
I'm not usually accused of hallucinating, but as time goes by, I'm beginning
to doubt myself!  I would love to hear if  anyone has ever heard this same
statement, I would think the power of it would be pretty strong if we could
just get some historical, qualified confirmation.  Being that I live in a
city with one small synagogue, my local resources are limited!   thanks!
Sincerely,
Alicia Burgett, CLE,IBCLC
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