I thought the *first* boycott against Nestle is what caused them to
capitulate; the second, or current boycott, is because they did not hold to
the terms of their agreement.  Moral:  the boycott against Nestle has been
effective in the past and with luck will be again.  Anyone know about this
and care to comment?

Also, if one accepts the proposition that boycotts don't work, then by the
same token we can see that positive buying (for lack of a better term)
would not work, either, since it has no more effect.

Arly Helm                                       [log in to unmask]