Bernard D.Sherman writes in his article:

>Period-instrument performers were once held to higher standards of
>insight, or at least novelty, than their mainstream colleagues.

That sounds to me as if Mr.Sherman believes these performers as a group
have lowered their standards somewhat.  Or does Mr.Sherman want us to
believe that if they are not "held" to higher standards (by whom, he
doesn't say), they are going to maintain higher standards regardless.  If
the latter, why make the statement at all? Why not phrase the beginning
of his paragraph as follows:  "Though period-instrument performers have
maintained higher standards of insight, or at least novelty, than their
mainstream colleagues, etc.  etc."

John Dalmas
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 [Regardless of how it "sounds to you", your interpretation is ridiculous.
 Mr. Sherman himself has pointed out out your misinterpretation, and I
 reiterate.  Your reading comprehension is now the topic of discussion.
 You need to get a clue.  If you feel strongly about this, stop trying to
 shoehorn someone else's article to fit your opinions and write your own.
 Create your own argument; I promise I'll distribute it.  -Dave]