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Date: | Thu, 20 May 1999 14:53:32 PDT |
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Denis Fodor wrote:
>Leighton no doubt has at very least an individualistic and subjective
>definition of music. In another posting Don asserted that this suffices to
>justify judgements in music. Here, to the contrary, the kind of definition
>that Don seems to require is the kind that resembles a paradigm.
Thee's nothing contrary about my position, and I don't "require" anything
of Leighton. If Leighton does not provide his definition of music, I'll
carry on just fine and so will Leighton.
Yes, I feel that the individual has every right to define music. However,
once the definition is stated, the individual, if being consistent, has
to live with that definition: works that fall "within" the definition
are music, those that don't are excluded. I was just interested in a
definition which would exclude the works of Stockhausen. I did offer a
challenge to Leighton, but we are not gladiators in the Roman coliseum.
My definition of music is any sound, series of sounds, absence of sound,
or any combination of sounds/absence of sounds. Who the hell am I to tell
another individual that something he/she considers music is not music? What
"proof" do I bring to the discussion to argue my case with? There is no
"proof." Rules/definitions established by humans are not set in concrete,
nor are they sacred. This applies to "speed limits" as well; so many
times, passengers in my car tell me that I must/need to obey the posted
speed limits as if God stuck the post in the ground. I detest blind
obedience to laws and rules; I accept the legal penalties for not adhering
to laws. Anyone for civil disobedience?
Don Satz
[log in to unmask]
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