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Date:
Tue, 4 May 1999 18:11:48 +0900
Subject:
From:
Noboru Inoue <[log in to unmask]>
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I failed to answer Bob Kasenchak's question, though important one...

>If two people are remembering the same melody at the same time is it a
>shared musical experience?

Someone in history have made some opinion or theory or answer to this
question? To my knowledge, this question is a question unanswerable by
man at least theoretically, though it depends on the definition of the
experience.

If the answer of the above question is YES, it only defines the word
"experience" i.e.  tautology.  If we want to step up above tautology.

In this ML, some one recommend some CD to others since they believe the
CD he or she "found/listened" good will(may/should/must) be also good for
other persons...  with "common" experience they expect to have among us.

This expectation/belief in them is often disappointed as a fact.
This fact indicates that the answer to the initial question is NO?

If the answer is YES to the initial question, what is its implication at
all then? Only they are there i.e.  in the "sound field", which causing
their eardrums to vibrate, then generating the same signal to their brains,
if the quality of eardrum and auditory pathway.

May we call this same experience? I am reluctant to say yes.

"Noboru Inoue" <[log in to unmask]>

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