I am a college student who frequently plays Baroque music.  My theory
professor, who is something of a dogmatist, insists that Bach always
intended for articulation to occur on the major beats (esp.  1), regardless
of the shape of the line.  For example, a sequence in which the final note
of the cell occurs on beat one and the first note of the following cell (is
that the right word?) is on, say, the second 16th note of the bar would
receive the accent on that final note of the cell (the downbeat) and not on
the start of each cell.  This runs counter to many/most recording artists'
interpretations.

Reasoning:
1.  The Baroque period was, in definite contrast to the Renaissance, one of
strong rhythmic drive and unprecedented attention to barline demarcations.
The dance roots of much of the music reinforces this view.  Therefore,
reinforcement of the barline is a necessary ingredient.

2.  The professor cites an Invention in which the original manuscript has
slurs written in.  These slurs always coincide with the barline.  Likely,
Bach was using it with another performer or a student and took the
uncharacteristic step of noting articulation on the score after the act
of composition.

3. It feels good. Putting that accentuation on the barline does certainly
feel like meat and potatos.

A few arguments against this:
1.  That particular Invention (I could find the exact one if someone wants)
was for an impossibly poor student who couldn't figure out rhythm.  So,
Bach resorted to pedantry in order to get the student to get through the
piece.

2.  Accentuation according to the line adds spice to the rhythmic drive,
esp. if a continuo is playing on the beat underneath (which Renaissance
composers would not have so much).

3.  In the Violin Sonatas/Partitas, Bach frequently slurs according to the
line, not the bar.  Of course, there are also conspicuous places where he
also slurs on the beat, over the line.  Again, I could cite mvt.  and bar
if someone were curious.

-I have nothing to say against the "feel-good" reason.  It does feel good.
Of course, in the Romantic period, composers certainly preferred that
performers accent according to line and not bar, and one would have to come
up with a good reason why the 19th c.  was intentionally different from the
Baroque.  Watch out for the intentional fallacy!

If someone has a good suggestion as to academic literature on the subject,
I'd be most appreciative. I don't have a good idea of how to find it.
Thanks! Backchannels welcome.

Robert Ward Shaw
Wake Forest University
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