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Date: | Wed, 21 Apr 1999 18:23:07 -0400 |
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Perhaps I missed something in my rather expensive and ineffectual education,
but is F**K now part of an academic Jargon? Did I miss out? How does this
relate to Foucault? Just wondering.
At 21:06 21.4.1999 +0200, you wrote:
>i sent some rather dastardly and blackhearted comments to the list the other
>day, in response to some fairly "postmodernist" comments made by a colleague,
>and have felt fairly guilty ever since; my comments were not meant to ridicule
>the individual in question's argument, nor any failings on his use of a
>second language, but were rather aimed at the rather opaque academic jargon he
>used to express himself (as a result of which, i must admit i was not
altogether
>sure just what the fuck he was on about)
> is it my imagination or is academeze on the comeback? can i blame it on
>foucault (i like to blame most things on foucault) and other french
>pseudo-philosophers who think more about being fancy stilists than presenting
>content, or... has it really always been there and i just missed out during my
>recent wilderness years?
>
>geoff carver
>http://home.t-online.de/home/gcarver/
>[log in to unmask]
>
>
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