Denis Fodor wrote:

>But music being what it is and language being what it is, the only way to
>equate them is to accept them both as useful, but different ways of cogent
>communication.  Both are perfectly capable of transmitting both objective
>and subjective meanings.(Which is why the surest way to explain musical
>meaning is via music.

Nothing is more simple to demonstrate than that music cannot transmit
objective meanings, and it is remarkable that people cannot let go of the
fallacy.  Music simply does not pretend to convey the specific details
which can be communicated by language.  This is no put-down of music- it is
a different mode of communication.  And of course to set words to the music
is simply to use language.

Bernard Chasan