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Tue, 4 Apr 2000 08:22:07 +0200 |
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Steve Schwartz [[log in to unmask]] wrote:
>Mats Norrman replies to me:
>
>>Why does he draw this conclusion? I can well agree there are Berlioz
>>influences in Wagner, but as I percieve Berlioz, he is rather German in
>>his style than French.
>
>"Forest Murmurs" from Siegfried is Impressionism before Debussy.
>Tristan's mad scene is Expressionism before Mahler or Schoenberg. To
>a great extent, the vocabulary (and the idea of what constitutes music)
>of both Expressionism and Impressionism comes from those earlier pieces.
>That's the argument Mitchell makes. I find it pretty convincing.
How does he (or you, or somebody else) describes the characteristicas
for Imressionist music resp. Expressionist music as differs from plain
romantic?
>I've never heard any orchestral work by Gade, including the op. 1. I've
>heard a bit of chamber music, however. It didn't do very much for me, I'm
>afraid. I found it "nice," but that was it.
Isn't it a little picky to make such a statement with having heard so
little? I suggest take a listen to "Elverskud" and "Fruehlingsphantasie".
Mats Norrman
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