I just got a call from a man, on behalf of his wife, regarding a
potential prescription for Prozac.  Their nursing baby is 7 months old.
I asked to speak to his wife and she wasn't there.  I told him I
preferred to speak *with* the mother, rather than *about* her and told
him I would be more than happy to talk with her if she wanted to call
me.

My rationale was 1) I didn't have her permission to discuss her
situation with anyone...but she isn't my client, and I know nothing
about her...is that "excuse" still valid?  There is really no
confidentiality on my part to breach.  2) There is information I need
that perhaps only she can provide and 3) I had no idea if she even knew
her husband was contacting me (via LLLI) and would hate to open that can
of worms if she didn't want him discussing this situation with a
stranger.

Are these valid and reasonable reasons for not "consulting" with the
father?  I think he was legitimate (not a pervert calling to talk about
nipples, or anything like that), and I feel kind of bad for not giving
him the information he wanted right away, but I really don't like the
idea of talking about a woman, even to her husband, without her consent
or knowledge.

Kathy
--
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

Kathy Koch, BSEd, IBCLC
LLL Leader, AAPL
mailto:[log in to unmask]          Great Mills, MD, USA
"Within the child lies the fate of the future."   Maria Montessori
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~