I just got a call from a man, on behalf of his wife, regarding a potential prescription for Prozac. Their nursing baby is 7 months old. I asked to speak to his wife and she wasn't there. I told him I preferred to speak *with* the mother, rather than *about* her and told him I would be more than happy to talk with her if she wanted to call me. My rationale was 1) I didn't have her permission to discuss her situation with anyone...but she isn't my client, and I know nothing about her...is that "excuse" still valid? There is really no confidentiality on my part to breach. 2) There is information I need that perhaps only she can provide and 3) I had no idea if she even knew her husband was contacting me (via LLLI) and would hate to open that can of worms if she didn't want him discussing this situation with a stranger. Are these valid and reasonable reasons for not "consulting" with the father? I think he was legitimate (not a pervert calling to talk about nipples, or anything like that), and I feel kind of bad for not giving him the information he wanted right away, but I really don't like the idea of talking about a woman, even to her husband, without her consent or knowledge. Kathy -- ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Kathy Koch, BSEd, IBCLC LLL Leader, AAPL mailto:[log in to unmask] Great Mills, MD, USA "Within the child lies the fate of the future." Maria Montessori ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~