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Subject:
From:
"Vicki.Ryan" <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Lactation Information and Discussion <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Thu, 8 Jun 2006 03:40:24 -0700
Content-Type:
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on Wed, 7 Jun 2006 13:20:18 -0400 "Jennifer Tow, IBCLC" <[log in to unmask]> 
Subject: Oversupply theory wrote:
"The third issue is hormone funtion. A mom whose body is suffering  from 
inflammation will have hormone imbalances.......
Sometimes, though the hormones need to be supported in the meantime. I use 
vitex to reduce the mother's supply--really that is just the result
of normalizing pituitary function, which is what vitex does. (Remember, 
vitex can only increase supply). "

I'm so confused (maybe because it's 3am). What does it mean to use vitex to 
*reduce* the mother's supply by normalizing pituitary function by using 
vitex which *increases* supply? am I misreading or misunderstanding that?
as someone with oversupply and OAMER, but what I consider great gut health 
(vegan, and bowel habits like a...well like a breastfed baby! :-D), and a 
son who had no birth trauma but certainly benefitted from CST (since trying 
to come out at 32 weeks and just hanging out reeeeealllly low squishing his 
head for another 7 weeks apparently had *some* effect on him!), I think your 
ideas make sense and I just want to make sure I understand.

Vicki Hayes RN IBCLC in WA-only for 2 more weeks :-( 

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