Listmama, please indulge me... I am practising research methods here.
(Related to bf because they are on the ibclc exam...:-)
I read the summary of the study on C/Secs and VBAC that others have been
discussing. Odile mentions,

> If you read it though, it says that this study "shows clearly
> that there is more risks of an uterine rupture when prostaglandines are
> involved"
>
Now, I didn`t see where it mentioned stats on the risk of uterine
rupture in vaginal births when they are induced with the various methods
mentioned.
Could someone help me with the concept of relative risk? Does this mean,
in this case "the risk of VBAC relative to C/Sec" *only* or if you are
discussing relative risk do you also have to consider "the risk of
induced VBAC relative to induced vaginal births *not* after C/Sec."
I don't know if I am explaining what I mean... probably not. Yikes!
Jo-Anne

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