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Date: | Wed, 25 Oct 2023 11:55:05 -0400 |
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Let me see if I digested the gist of your interesting post here.
Assume there is an alcoholic father who has a daughter. Throughout her life, she has experienced all the negative behaviors exhibited by her drunken father. So she decides to join a convent where alcohol is strictly prohibited. Now she has the gene that will make her susceptible to alcoholism but she has never touched a drink. Hence she never becomes an alcoholic.
The "alcoholic gene" never had a chance to express itself in her although she did inherit the gene. Is this gene then recessive? Does this gene express itself (gets turned on) only when she consumes alcohol? which will imply NURTURE. That is, for better or worse, my understanding from the perspective of Nutritional Science. Since she has never touched alcohol, has she stopped the gene expression completely? Will she still inherit the alcoholism-inducing gene, if she decides to get married? I think Epigentics is still in its infancy as we will learn more of the mechanism each year. For me, it seems to work both ways: nature and nurture.
But I stand corrected when I err.
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