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From:
Sam Kemp <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Sat, 5 May 2001 16:43:41 +0100
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I imagine that these two might well be connected (the timescale's about
right, of course).  Also, the name I originally mentioned for this law,
Familiengesetz (=family-law) makes more sense in the context you suggest -
limiting the number of families, not the number of children, being the
main aim.  A cut-off of 1848 also explains why Mahler himself was not so
affected - this may in fact have been one of the dicta repealed in the
revolution-induced constitution of 1849?

The policy suggested seems slightly surreal, though, as both Czechoslovakia
and Hungary were under the Habsburg umbrella at this time!  Is this another
example of the discrimination against the Czechs that led to the rebellion
in 1848? After this subject was first raised I trawled through the various
European History tomes in our school's library, but could find no mention
of anything along these lines, eventually coming to the conclusion that my
original source was in error.  That said, there is really not all that much
on social history in these books:  I'll have another check now that I've
got a better idea of timescale.

Sam Kemp

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