I wonder whether anyone knows the cause of the following:

Leonard Bernstein wrote his Jeremiah Symphony in 1942 at age 24.  The
only recording I have or want of this and his Kaddish symphonies are the
ones which he made with Jennie Tourel for many reasons, but most of all
bc.  I love Jennie Tourel.  I started the thread on the Yahoo Mahler
list to which Mitch referred re DLvdE.

Now both in the Tourel recording and the later one with Ludwig (I hope
I have that straight: Ludwig in the later Jeremiah, Caballe in the later
Kaddish) as well as in the several Bernstein conducted recordings of the
Kaddish symphony, the languages, Hebrew and Aramaic resp.  are pronounced
in Standard Israeli Hebrew.  But why would Bernstein in 1942 as an
Ashkenazi American Jew not have employed Ashkenazi pronunciation, the
form of Hebrew and Aramaic of most American Jews?  No, I have not heard
the Maestro's 1945 Jeremiah recording with Merriman and probably would
prefer not to.  And information gratefully received.

Best,
Yoel