Stirling S Newberry ([log in to unmask]) commenting on a Daily
Telegraph article:

>Both Rattle and Barenboim are exponents of virtually the same orchestral
>rep, Rattle leaning more to towards the British end of recent music that
>Barenboim, and B leaning toward the French and American, but otherwise
>there is little difference between them.  What was the writer thinking?

Would you care to substantiate this accusation? From where I sit there
is a considerable difference between the two conductors.

Deryk Barker
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