I'm having to appeal to the wise one's tonight as I think I might be missing something! My understanding is that an infant with a postconceptional age of 34 weeks is the same as 36 weeks post menstural age (or 36 weeks corrected gestational age, if an infant was born 6 weeks ago at an PMA of 30 weeks). Simple stuff, but I needed to refresh mysefl on this! 
I am reviewing a paper (Cup or bottle for preterm infants: effects on oxygen saturation, weight gain, and breastfeeding, JHL 2002, Rocha et al). When reading this paper it turns out that all of the infants began oral feedings at a postconceptional age of 37 weeks - this is actually 39 weeks PMA - thus term infants. Infact in this paper, measurements of cup feeding (oxygen sats, time feeding) were not actually made until the infants had had one week of oral feedings, thus at 40 weeks PMA (range 36-46 weeks).
Thus my questions are (to the premature infant people)  - how can this be a study on premature infants if they were all about term when the measurements were made? This clearly a study of cup/bottle feeding in term infants who were born premature (mean 32 weeks PCA). 

Interested if anyone has also read this paper / or thoughts on what you can soundly call premature?

groetjes

Sara Bernard
The Netherlands

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