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Wed, 22 Mar 2006 23:50:10 GMT
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I don't understand what the relationshi is between breastfeeding with possible oversupply and possible kidney disease in the baby. How exactly could too much of any kind of milk CAUSE kidney disease?? This makes no sense to me. If kidney problem is present, then it would have to have been genetic, right? Why would a health care provider imply that it might have been anything the mother did that contributed? How could it have been anything other than genetics? Sounds like the provider owes the mother an apology.
Elaine Mazgelis, RD, IBCLC
Cambridge-Somerville WIC
Massachusetts, USA

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